The Quran “Copied” from the Bible? A Simple Way to Refute the “Plagiarism” Argument

Christian apologists, especially the less-educated ones, often times accuse the Quran of having copied from the Bible. This, they argue, shows that Islam is not from God but is rather a man-made religion.

But this argument can be very easily refuted. The next time a brainless Christian apologist uses this argument, just give him/her the following history lesson:

  • The Bible refers to the ruler of Egypt in the times of Abraham and Joseph (peace be upon them) as “Pharaoh” (Genesis 12, 37).
  • Both the Bible and the Quran refer to the Egyptian ruler during the time of Moses (peace be upon him) as “Pharaoh”.
  • While the title was used in the time of Moses (peace be upon him), it was NOT used to refer to the Egyptian king in earlier times, such as those of Abraham and Joseph (peace be upon them), which means that the Bible’s use of the term in Genesis is an anachronism.
  • If the charge of “plagiarism” is accurate, then we should expect that the Quran would repeat the error in the Bible when recounting the story of Joseph (Surah 12). And yet, we find that the Arabic word “firaun” is ONLY used to describe the Egyptian king in the time of Moses (peace be upon him) but NEVER in the time of Joseph (peace be upon him).
  • How could the author of the Quran, assuming He was copying the Bible or other Jewish stories in 7th century Arabia, have known NOT to use the title “firaun” when referring to the Egyptian ruler in the time of Joseph (peace be upon him)? The “plagiarism” argument immediately breaks down!

You see how easy it is? So the next time some brainless apologist uses this argument to bash the Quran, show him the folly of his argument and enjoy watching him squirm!

12 thoughts on “The Quran “Copied” from the Bible? A Simple Way to Refute the “Plagiarism” Argument

  1. stewjo004

    Yep, there is never a counter for this lol. If you want to add to this argument:

    Both the Bible and Qur’an say that the Prophet Yusuf (as) (aka Joseph) had a dream about the stars and moon bowing to him.

    “Then he had another dream, and he told it to his brothers. “Listen,” he said, “I had another dream, and this time the sun and moon and eleven stars were bowing down to me.” [Genesis 37:9]

    When Joseph said to his father: “My most honored Father, I dreamed of eleven stars, the sun and the moon and… I saw them all bow down before me.” (Qur’an 12:4)

    The moon in the dream represents his mother. The problem is that according to the Bible before Joseph’s dream is fulfilled, his mother dies:

    So Rachel died and was buried on the way to Ephrath (that is, Bethlehem). (Genesis 35:19)

    Like in the Quran his brothers do bow to him at the end of the story:

    When Joseph came home, they presented to him the gifts they had brought into the house, and they bowed down before him to the ground. (Genesis 43:26)

    Notice that Rachel is not alive to bow to him. So this prophecy failed according to the Bible. In the Qur’an, his mother is alive to bow and fulfill the dream.

    And took his TWO parents up to the throne. They all bowed down before him and he said: “Oh my Father, this is the fulfillment of the dream I had so long ago! My Lord has made it come true and has done so much good to me. He released me from prison and He brought you here from the desert, even after Satan caused disunity between my brothers and I. My Lord is most subtle in achieving whatever He wants and He is truly the All Knowing and the Most Wise!” (12:100)

    Just one of the many ways the Qur’an corrects the previous Scriptures.,…

    Liked by 1 person

  2. Atlas

    Lol yea the xtian in a youtube comment section came up with a silly answer which if it was the other way around where the bible gets it right and the Quran gets it wrong then they would NEVER accept the same respons in a million years!

    Liked by 1 person

  3. Pingback: The “Pharaoh” in Genesis: How the Quran and Ahadith Correct the Bible – The Quran and Bible Blog

  4. Pingback: The “Pharaoh” in Genesis: How the Quran and Ahadith Correct the Bible – Blogging Theology

  5. Kola

    Moses wrote Genesis for the benefit of his contemporaries. They knew the Egyptian ruler as a Pharoah. It is not an error for Moses to use the term Pharosh when depicting the ruler of Egypt in Joseph’s time as he was just using a word that would’ve been clear to his readers.

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    1. First of all, you have no proof that Moses “wrote Genesis”. It is far more likely that Genesis reached its final form hundreds of years after Moses. Also, there is no reason for a supposedly “inspired” text to use inaccurate terminology. I should think the alleged word of God would be held to a higher standard.

      Liked by 2 people

    2. Vaqas Rehman

      @Kola

      The argument you & prob most others are using for the word Pharoah being used in Joeseph(alayhis salam)’s time can work generically but not in the biblical episode specifically.

      An easy example to illustrate the problem is the word nazi. While now the well known past name of that german group and their ideology it was actually a slur that they would never have used & their leader hated. So while a modern day historical telling can say “the nazi’s did this or that” for ease of communication to the current public & be fine, including a depiction of past soldiers to the reich going “we are the nazi’s” is taken as a serious histrical blunder.

      Likewise in the case of the bible, genesis saying the “pharoah did this or that” could work but in gen 40:9 onward when the cupbearer tells Joeseph alayhis salam his dream to interpret it & both of them use the word that is a serious historical blunder!

      Liked by 3 people

      1. Vaqas Rehman

        @Black Freiza

        You know I just realized, this argument makes even less sense juxtaposed with the clearly post mosiac editorial verses in the pentateuch(secret of ibn ezra/secret of the twelve).

        Since from the perspective of a beliving Jew or Christian you’d have to accept either

        A: Moses alayhis salam said things that objectivly make no sense to him or the Israelites in the imediate contex of said verses.

        B: Some random unknown prophet at a random unknown time was conscripted by God to edit the then established scripture with the equivalent of random informative footnote like verses into the text.

        Because God apparently thought we really needed verses that mention “The “Other Side” of the Jordan”,  “Og’s Bed”, “To This Very Day” ect but a clarification on the naturte of Pharoah in Joeseph alayhis salam time? Nah.

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