As-salaam alaikum. I saw the recent discussion between brother Nadir Ahmed and Michael Brown on the topic of Deuteronomy 18 and whether Muhammad (peace be upon him) is the prophet. I noticed some examples of Brown’s incompetence, so I made a video demonstrating these. Enjoy!
The Quran and Bible Blog 
Reblogged this on Blogging Theology and commented:
My video on the recent discussion between Nadir Ahmed and Michael Brown. I discuss a few mistakes made by Brown which demonstrate his incompetence.
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Wonderful video. I do have some thoughts though.
First, i find it ironic that Brown would use Deuteronomy 34:10 as proof that “the prophet like Moses(a.s)” had to be an israelite when the plain reading of the text and even some jewish commentaries say the opposite!
“Never again’: Note the discrepancy between the perspective of this verse and the divine promise to Moses that the line of prophetic succession will continue in the future: “I will raise up a prophet for them…like yourself” The Jewish Study Bible, commentary on Deuteronomy 34:10, p. 450
“The Sages note the Torah’s statement here that in Israel there will never be a Prophet like Moses implies that among the non-Jewish nations there could be such a prophet…” Artscholl Chumash Commentary on Deuteronomy, p. 187
https://www.manyprophetsonemessage.com/2017/03/31/how-deuteronomy-foretells-the-coming-of-muhammad-%ef%b7%ba/
Second, the statement that jews do not believe in non jewish prophets is as far as i’m aware, not entirely true.
“Seven prophets prophesied to the nations of the world, namely, Balaam and his father, Job, Eliphaz the meridional, Bildad the Shuhite, Zophar the Naamathite, and Elihu the son of Barachel the Buzite {for the last, there is a Machloket in Gemara later, if he was Jew or not. See Tosfot who cited a Gemara in AZ 3a which skipped it from a list containing some others, see Rashi AZ 3a about 2 Girsaot in AZ.}.”
https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/73900/were-there-non-jewish-prophets-if-yes-who-were-they-and-what-were-their-purpos
http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/11641-obadiah
So at the very least some do.
P.S
Are you gonna do a reaction to the main video that was referenced in this one? The one Michael brown did with David wood as well?
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I hadn’t thought about it because as I said, I’m pretty impartial about the topic. I do think that the argument that the prophet was Jesus is flawed and can be refuted though.
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Oh I can’t believe I almost forgot, it doesn’t matter if the “I AM” sayings are historical or not. The reason being is that
1: they are NOT the same as saying yhwh!
2: they are not sufficient proof that Jesus(a.s) claimed to be God. In my discussions with ken on the subject he stated that the human nature said the “I AM” statements but applied it to the divine only. this makes it impossible for a Christian to say that Jesus(a.s.) was claiming to be God. As we can say the same thing minus the whole incarnation bit. Ex. A completely human man named Jesus(a.s) said the “I AM” statements not in reference to himself, but in reference to the God he worshiped, the father.
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Wow I just noticed that this video on youtube is getting flooded by trolls, price of popularity i guess. Speaking of, i noticed one of the trolls use a quote i’ve seen other anti islamists make
“2,270 instances where there is a difference from the [consonantal skeleton] of the Fahd Muṣḥaf” (Altıkulaç,‘Al-Mushaf al-Sharif’2007:81)”
and
“There are deviations from grammatical rules (Laḥn) and spelling mistakes in theMuṣḥafs attributed to Caliph‘Uthmān” (Altıkulaç,‘Al-Mushaf al-Sharif’2007:41f)”
with https://www.ircica.org/publications/quran-copies-and-translations/al-mushaf-al-sharif-tubingen being the claimed source. Anyone know
1) If the quotes are legitimate
2) What our response should be?
I only ask cause i hate leaving things unresponded to.
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Lol, I definitely struck a nerve. They don’t like being challenged and unable to answer.
None of the quotes prove that the Quran was corrupted. Christians are deceivers, so they take things out of context. 2,270 differences from the Fahd Mushaf? None of these differences changes the meaning. Grammatical deviations? Again, that doesn’t change the meaning. Spelling mistakes? Well, that tends to happen sometimes.
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https://bloggingtheology.net/2018/03/04/examining-the-newest-historical-research-on-earliest-quranic-manuscripts-i-jay-smith-ejaz-ahmed/
Brother Ejaz Ahmed already debunked these laughable claims.
Most of the “2,270 differences” have to do with the letter alif. 🤣🤣🤣
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Hey guys, check out my response to a Christian called “royal son” on YouTube. I think he has posted on BT previously on as well.
He tried to answer my question about whether Jesus prophesied in the name of Yahweh, which is one of the conditions Brown set. Here is what “royal retard” claimed:
“In John 17:6, Jesus says While I was with them, I protected and preserved them by Your name, the name You gave Me.
Jesus protected and preserved the elect with the Father’s name. This shows the sovereign preserving power of Christ. While Christ preserved each of the elect, Allah lacked the sovereign power to protect His own word according to the Islamic worldview.
Jesus miraculously preserved the elect with God’s name – the very name which God gave to Him – The name Jesus means YHWH the savior, or YHWH the salvation. So, yes, Jesus did things in His own name which is the name of God.”
And it didn’t much effort to destroy this argument:
“Thank you for actually attempting to answer the question. You still failed miserably, but at least you tried. It amazes me that you have to do so much reaching and appealing to non-sequiturs, instead of just admitting that you lost.
So let’s look at John 17:6. Here is what your commentaries say:
Benson commentary: “I have manifested thy name — All thy attributes; and in particular thy paternal relation to believers”
Barnes Notes: “Have manifested thy name – The word “name” here includes the attributes or character of God. Jesus had made known his character, his law, his will, his plan of mercy – or, in other words, he had revealed God to them. The word “name” is often used to designate the person…”
JFB Bible commentary: “From praying for Himself He now comes to pray for His disciples.
I have manifested—I manifested.
thy name—His whole character towards mankind.”
And the most damaging of all, Gill’s Exposition: “I have manifested thy name,…. Not the “Nomen Tetragrammaton”, the name of four letters, the name “Jehovah”, and which the Jews call “Shemhamphorash”, and say is ineffable, and to be pronounced by Adonai; who also speak of other names, and say (i), ”
OUCH!
So Jesus did not “manifest” God’s alleged “name” Yahweh. It was referring to God as “Father”. That’s the name.
So nice try, but you failed to answer the question. I think you guys have had ample time to answer and the fact that you cannot shows that Jesus cannot be the prophet because he did not prophesy in Yahweh’s name.’
Also, this little twerp tried to give me advice about being “respectful” but then was getting all chummy with the Christian trolls who have done nothing but insult Islam. This is the true face of Christianity, the face of hypocrisy. “By their fruits, you shall know them”.
Then this pig tried to be a wise guy and attempted to use lies and astonishing leaps of logic to demonize Prophet Muhammad (pbuh):
“Royal Son
Royal Son
11 hours ago
@Ebun Williams It gets even worse than this:
Premise 1. Muhammad said if anyone has a dream they don’t like, it is from Satan (Bukhari 9.87.114)
Premise 2. Muhammad’s revelation at the cave at Mt Hira was in the form of a dream (Bukhari 6.60.479,480) which He didn’t like (Buhari 1.1.3, 9.87.111, Sirat al Rasul Allah)
Conclusion: Therefore Muhammad’s revelation of the Qur’an at Mt Hira was from Satan. ”
And I destroyed this argument as well, while also proving that Paul was a Satanic apostle:
“quranandbibleblog
quranandbibleblog
28 minutes ago
@Royal Son Pathetic Christian logic and deception!
Let’s see the hadith about dreams:
” Abu Qatada reported Allah’s Messenger (ﷺ) as saying:
The good vision are from Allah and the evil dreams are from the satan. If one sees a dream which one does not like, one should spit on one’s left side and seek the refuge of Allah from the satan; it will not do one any harm, and one should not disclose it to anyone and if one sees a good vision one should feel pleased but should not disclose it to anyone but whom one loves.” Sahih Muslim)
So, it’s about dreams that are “good” and “evil”.
Second, the experience in the cave was not a dream:
” Narrated Aisha:
(the wife of the Prophet) The commencement (of the Divine Inspiration) to Allah’s Messenger (ﷺ) was in the form of true dreams in his sleep, for he never had a dream but it turned out to be true and clear as the bright daylight. Then he began to like seclusions, so he used to go in seclusion in the cave of Hira where he used to worship Allah continuously for many nights before going back to his family to take the necessary provision (of food) for the stay. He come back to (his wife) Khadija again to take his provision (of food) likewise, till one day he received the Guidance while he was in the cave of Hira. An Angel came to him and asked him to read. Allah’s Messenger (ﷺ) replied, “I do not know how to read.”” (Sahih Bukhari)
So he was initially having dreams that came true, but when he was in the cave, he was awake. It was not a dream. The hadith does not say that it was a dream.
Nice try with your copy/paste Google search. You guys are pathetic!
Speaking of Satanic visions, let’s look at the demonic Paul:
“And no wonder, for Satan himself masquerades as an angel of light.” (2 Corinthians 11:14)
“As he neared Damascus on his journey, suddenly a light from heaven flashed around him.” (Acts 9:3)
Hmmm, so Paul had a vision of Satan! That makes sense! He was a liar, and Satan is the father of all lies! LOL!! “
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