According to eminent scholars, the gospels, with the exception of John, do not teach that Jesus was “God-incarnate”. No surprise there.
Luke 1:30-35 (NRSV)
30 The angel said to her, “Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God. 31 And now, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you will name him Jesus. 32 He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High, and the Lord God will give to him the throne of his ancestor David. 33 He will reign over the house of Jacob forever, and of his kingdom there will be no end.” 34 Mary said to the angel, “How can this be, since I am a virgin?” 35 The angel said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to be born will be holy; he will be called Son of God.
Four distinguished historians and New Testament scholars explain…
View original post 26 more words
The Quran and Bible Blog 
there is an argument that not even john teaches that jesus was co-equivallent to the father:
John has Jesus say things like, “the Father is greater than I,” and “I seek not my own will, but the father who sent me,” and “I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.”
Jesus talks about”the father who sent me” a lot in John. In 5:45, Jesus says, “do you think I will accuse you to the father?”
The Logos (which gJohn derived from Philo, who derived it from Plato) is envisioned basically a projection of the consciousness (the “wisdom” aka the Holy Spirit) of God. The incarnation in gJohn represents essentially indwelling of the Holy Spirit . Jesus is an agent for God. He’s channeling God. When Isaiah was speaking he words of God, was Isaiah speaking or was God speaking?
LikeLiked by 2 people
God cannot fail to be omniscient, undying , beginingless and omnipotent.
What all of these pagan incarnations have in common is that all the flesh gods are dependant on unfailing, independant and uncontingent being, NEVER ON THEMSELVES.
LikeLiked by 1 person