The following is from J. Keir Howard’s book “Medicine, Miracle and Myth in the New Testament” (p. 52):
“…for the term ‘virgin’ was used in Jewish parlance simply to designate a girl who was considered too physically immature to conceive.”
What makes this more shocking is that Howard is specifically referring to Mary, the mother of Jesus (peace be upon him), but it could also apply to the “virgins” of Numbers 31:18. So, we have further proof to demolish the lies of Cerbie/Paulus and his watered-down, secularist interpretation of the Bible. Based on the above, Howard suggests that Mary was pre-pubescent!
Hat-tip to brother Tony for this reference! Keep up the good work!
lol very clear explanation and EASY to understand brother.
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“but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man.”
the bible says that if the virgin is not satisfying soldier of war after having relationship with her, then he is allowed to let her go(note it says nothing about divorce because pov was not @ the same level as jewish pov or jewish woman).
i recently watched a video on high level of prostitution in britian and how even divorced women had no other option but to prostitute themselves after the husband lets them go (divorce).
if you continue to watch the video you will note that uk was quite a bit of a stinker.
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